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CMC Vellore

CMC Vellore 2025 Exam Dates CMC (Cristian Medical College) Vellore conducts a university level entrance examination every year. Examination is conducted one time each year to offer admission in various UG & PG medical courses except MBBS/ BDS. Candidates can get admission in B.Sc. nursing, B.Sc. MLT etc. courses. Admission in MBBS/ BDS courses will be provided based on the NEET scores. In this article we have mentioned complete details about CMC Vellore 2024 including application form, fee, eligibility and exam pattern details. In the given table we have provided official dates for group A MBBS of CMC Vellore: Events Dates 2025 (Announced) Starting of Application February 11, 2025 Last date of Application Submission & fee payment 28 March 2025 Last Date of Uploading Supporting Documents (wherever necessary) 1 April 2025 Last date for receipt of certification forms from Minority Network organizations25 April 2025 Online submission of NEET UG 2024 Scores CMC Vellore 2024 Application Form In the given steps we have provided details about CMC Vellore 2024 Application Form: The application form has been released online mode on the website. Any offline facility is not be provided to fill the application form. Fill all asked details carefully in the application form including personal, academic and more. Upload scanned documents i.e. passport size photograph and signature in the prescribed format. Candidates can apply for 7 courses in group A and for 5 courses in group B. There will be no need to send a hard copy of the application form. Do not forget to take a printout of the application form for future reference. Application Fee: The application fee will include a basic administrative fee of Rs. 800 + a registration fee of Rs. 500/-. Candidates will be able to pay fees online as well as offline mode. Online payment will be done via credit card/ debit card or net banking. Candidates can also pay fees via challan at any branch of ICICI bank. The fee will be non-refundable under any circumstances. CMC Vellore 2024 Eligibility Criteria Nationality: Indian candidates are eligible to apply. Age Limit: Candidates must have completed the age of 17 years on or before 31st December 2023. All the applying candidates must note that they should have obtained a minimum of marks at the 50th percentile in the NEET UG 2024 examination. For MBBS, candidates must have passed all subjects of the qualifying exam of the Higher Secondary Certificate Exam conducted by TNSB or any other equivalent exam in one and same attempt in subjects. No improvement marks for the 12th exam will be considered. As per the guidelines of TN Govt & university, for admission into medical courses, candidates must have passed in PCB subjects along with English individually and should have secured a minimum of 50% marks taken together in PCB at the qualifying exam (40% marks for BC/ MBC/ ST/SC). CMC Vellore 2024 Exam Pattern Mode of Paper: The NEET 2022 paper will be held in offline – Pen and paper mode. Language: Paper will be available in various languages – English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Marathi, Odia, Assamese, Telugu, Urdu and Kannada. Time Duration: 3 hours will be given to complete the paper. Type of Questions: The paper will have objective type of questions. Total Marks: The exam will be of total 720 marks. Marking Scheme: 4 marks will be given for each correct answer. For each incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted. Below we have given the distribution of questions and marks for the NEET paper: Subjects Number of Questions Marks Physics 35 140 15 40 Chemistry 35 140 15 40 Botany 35 140 15 40 Zoology 35 140 15 40 Total 720 marks CMC Vellore 2024 Syllabus CMC Vellore syllabus for MBBS admission will be according to the NEET exam. Questions will be asked from the physics, chemistry, biology and English subjects. The official syllabus will be released by the authorities online mode on the website. The syllabus for group A courses except MBBS/ BDS will consist of chemistry, physics and biology subjects. Group B courses it will consist of questions from general eligibility, chemistry, physics and biology subjects.The CMC Vellore Step-II BSc Nursing exam is scheduled for July 8th to 10th, 2025. The selection result for this exam is expected to be announced on July 21st, 2025. Registration for CMC Vellore Nursing 2025 admission begins on September 1st, 2025, and classes are scheduled to begin on September 2nd, 2025.

Sumasri

MGIMS Wardha

Name of Exam: MGIMS Entrance Exam Conducting Authority: Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Medical Sciences Courses of Admission: MBBS/ BDS MGIMS MBBS Admission 2026NEET UG 2026 exam, expected to be held in May 2026 MGIMS offers admission into its MBBS programme for which admissions are strictly on the basis of NEET entrance examination which is further followed by counselling. The duration of the programme is 4.5 years. Name of the course MBBS Mode of course Full time Duration 4 years 6 months Specialisations - Course Fees INR 8 lakhs Mode of Application Online Application fees INR 1500 for General category INR 1400 for EWS/OBC category INR 800 for SC/ST/PH category Intake 100 Selection criteria NEET Entrance score It is approved by the Medical Council of India or MCI. In 2019, the institution conducted its first ever batch of MBBS in August. MGIMS MBBS Eligibility Criteria For seeking admissions to MBBS course, a candidate must have passed higher secondary/10+2 or equivalent examination from a recognised board with Physics, Chemistry and Biology/Biotechnology Individual pass marks in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology and English is mandatory Must have secured 50% marks (40% for reserved category) in aggregate Notes: Lower age limit cannot be less than 17 years and upper age limit permissible is 25 years (30 years for reserved category) Must have secured at least 50 percentile (40 percentile for reserved category) in NEET entrance exam MGIMS MBBS Selection Criteria Admissions are one the basis of marks in 10+2 exam as well as score of NEET entrance exam. MGIMS conducts a pre-medical entrance exam that is counted as one of the criteria for admission to MBBS. NEET Cut off Round 1, 2019 General Category: 1864-5809 For SC category: 23887-35871 For ST category: 32877-53225 NEET Counselling The counselling session for 2021 will commence in July 2021 conducted by Directorate General of Health Services. Candidates will be called for counselling on the basis of merit list published. There is a provision of resigning or surrendering seats allotted in the process as well. Once selected, candidates need to visit the college to complete other formalities including documentation and fee payment. MGIMS Exam Pattern Details of Structure of Question Paper & Marking Criteria The Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Medical Sciences (MGIMS) conducts every year a common entrance exam for the selection of eligible candidates in the different undergraduate as well as postgraduate courses in the field of Medicine as well as Dentistry. The candidates who wish to participate in the concerned entrance exam may go through the complete details of eligibility, syllabus, paper pattern and qualifying criteria from the information as given here below. The MGIMS Entrance Exam is held every year in the April/ May months for all the candidates interested to appear in the concerned examination. Eligibility for Exam: The candidates should be Intermediate/ Class 12th passed in the following main subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English with a minimum of 50% marks (40% for SC/ST/OBC/ NT/ VJ) obtained in each of the subjects mentioned and all the subjects took together. The applicants who will be appearing for the Board Exams in March 2014 can also apply for the concerned entrance exam provisionally. The qualifying ages for appearing in the MGIMS Exam is 17 years brought into effect from 31st December of the concerned year of admission. Criteria of Entrance Exam: There will be two papers in the Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Medical Sciences Entrance Exam on the following main topics: Paper 1- Physics (60 Questions) Chemistry (60 Questions) Chemistry (60 Questions) Biology (60 Questions) Duration of Exam: 3 Hours Paper 2- Gandhian Thought (60 Questions) Duration of Exam: 3 Hours Marking Scheme: The applicants shall be given 1 mark per question in the exam. The questions in the exam shall be objective type having multiple choice-based answers. Syllabus of Study: The applicants should prepare for the concerned exam on the basis of their syllabus in the concerned subjects at the +2 level. To get more information on the MGIMS Entrance Exam, the candidates should use the following contact details: For more information click here

Sumasri

AIIMS Exam

AIIMS examination is a national-level exam which is administered by the All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi. AIIMS exam has been scrapped now. It is now replaced by NEET. AIIMS offers admission in MBBS seats in its various AIIMS-affiliated institutions in India. Through NEET, candidates will be offered admission into MBBS, BDS & Ayush courses. AIIMS 2026 Exam Dates In the given below table, we have given the exam dates for the NEET 202. The official exam dates have been provided below:INI-CET PG (July 2026 Session): Entrance exam scheduled for 15th May, 2026 (Friday). B.Sc. Nursing (Hons.) 2026: Exam scheduled for June 2026, with final registration typically ending in May. M.Sc. Courses/M. Biotechnology 2026: Entrance exam on 12th June, 2026 (Friday); results on 19th June, 2026 (Friday). M.Sc. Nursing 2026: Exam on 19th June, 2026 (Friday); results on 26th June, 2026 (Friday). Recruitment (NORCET-10) 2026: Stage-I on 10th April, 2026, and Stage-II on 29th April, 2026.

Sumasri

National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) - UG

National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) is the single entrance test conducted at UG level for admission to medical courses. The most popular medical course after the 12th is MBBS. The full form of MBBS is Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery. In addition to MBBS, through NEET exam admission to BDS, BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, BHMS, and BVSc & AH courses are granted. On the basis of NEET 2024, admission to 542 medical, 313 dental, 15 AIIMS, 2 JIPMER, 914 AYUSH, and 47 BVSc & AH colleges will be granted. Out of total registrations, as many as 13.66 lakh registered candidates appeared in the NEET UG exam last year. Out of appeared candidates, only 7.71 lakh candidates qualified NEET paper last year. NEET UG Important Dates 2026 Event NEET dates NEET exam notification Early 2026 Last date of Registration by NTA January 2026 (starts) to early March 2026 (ends). Application Correction Window Release of NEET-UG admit card NEET exam date May 3, 2026 (Sunday) Result declaration NEET Re -Exam Re-Exam result NEET UG Exam Pattern 2026 One of the prerequisites before appearing for the NEET exam is to be familiar with the NEET exam pattern 2025. As per NEET 2022 exam latest news, there will be 200 NEET questions out of which candidates need to answer 180. The questions will be divided into two sections for each subject - Section A and B. Section A contains 35 questions while Section B will have 15 questions. Out of these 15 questions, candidates can answer any 10, which makes it 180 questions. As per NEET exam pattern 2022, there will be three sections - physics, chemistry, and biology. Check the table below to know details about the NEET exam pattern such as duration of the exam, nature of questions asked, number of questions asked from each section, weightage of marks from each section, and the marking scheme. Particulars Details Mode of exam Offline Duration of exam 3 hours Total number of questions 180 questions to be attempted out of 200 questions Total marks 720 marks Sections 3 sections - Physics, Chemistry, Biology Marking scheme +4 marks for the correct answer -1 marks for incorrect answer 0 marks for an unattempted answer NEET UG Eligibility Criteria 2025 For candidates to appear in the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test 2022, they must fulfill the required eligibility criteria. The eligibility criteria of NEET 2024 includes minimum and maximum age requirement, educational requirement, subjects studied in the qualifying exam, status of the qualifying exam, category, and nationality. Minimum age requirement: Candidates applying for NEET 2023 must have completed a minimum 17 years of age at the time of admission as of 31 December, 2025 Maximum age requirement: The provisional maximum age limit for general candidates is 25 years. Candidates belonging to SC, ST, OBC-NCL, and PwD category are offered a relaxation of 5 years in the upper age limit. However, the decision on the upper age limit for the NEET exam is pending in the Supreme Court. Thus, all candidates are provisionally eligible to sit in NEET UG 2025, as per the SC judgement on April 29, 2019. Nationality: Candidates eligible for NEET 2026 include Indian Nationals, Non Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), Persons with Indian Origin (PIO), and Foreign Nationals. Educational qualifications: Candidates who have either completed or are appearing in 10+2 or equivalent are eligible to appear in NEET exam 2025 Subjects studied: To apply for NEET exam, aspirants must have studied physics, chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology and English as subjects. Minimum marks required in qualifying exam: Candidates must secure at least 50% marks in physics, chemistry, and biology combined in the 10+2 qualifying exam. For SC, ST, OBC-NCL category candidates the minimum marks required are 40%. NEET UG Mode of Language 2025 The NEET exam 2025 will be conducted in 11 languages. Apart from English and Hindi, NTA has introduced 9 regional languages - Telugu, Assamese, Bengali, Kannada, Odia, Gujarati, Tamil, Urdu, and Marathi. NEET UG Exam Centres 2025 NEET exam centres are test centres where the NEET UG exam will be conducted. NTA has released the list of NEET exam cities for 2022. As per the letter of Amit Khare, Secretary of Ministry of Education, a new exam city at Dubai has been added to the exam centre list making it a total of 203 exam centres. According to last year, there are 3862 NEET exam centres. Candidates will have to provide three choices of NEET exam centres 2022 while filling the application form. The choices of NEET 2022 exam centre must be filled in order of preference and convenience. NEET UG Dress Code 2025 To ensure fair play in the NEET 2024 exam, NTA releases strict guidelines with respect to the dress code for the exam and the items which are not permitted inside the examination hall. Candidates not adhering to the prescribed NEET 2024 dress code will not be allowed to enter the NEET test centre. The NEET 2024 dress code is as follows : NEET dress code for males T-shirts or shirts with half sleeves are permitted. Trousers/bottom wear should not have multiple zip pockets, big buttons, pockets, and embroidery. Kurta pyjamas are not allowed. Shoes are not allowed inside the exam centre. Candidates can wear light sandals or slippers. NEET dress code for female Girls can wear half sleeves kurtas. Full sleeves are not allowed. Trousers/bottom wear should be simple without fancy buttons, pockets, and embroidery. Salwars are also permitted. Girls can wear very low heel sandals and slippers. NEET UG Minimum Qualifying Criteria 2021 Category Minimum NEET percentile required Last year NEET cutoff scores General/General-EWS 50th percentile 720-147 SC/ST/OBC 40th percentile 146-113 Benchmark Disabilities - UR/GEN-EWS 45th percentile 146-129 Benchmark Disabilities - SC/ST/OBC-NCL 40th percentile 128-113 For more information, click here.

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National Entrance Screening Test

National Entrance Screening Test, commonly known as NEST, is a national-level computer-based exam for admission to the five years integrated M.Sc program in Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics at National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER), Bhubaneswar and University of Mumbai - Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM-DAE CEBS), Mumbai. National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER), Bhubaneswar and the University of Mumbai - Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM-DAE CEBS), Mumbai jointly conducts NEST exam once a year for admission to the five years integrated M.Sc program in Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics. It is a computer-based test. The question paper will be available in English and Hindi language. The difficulty of the exam is perceived from moderate to difficult. NEST 2025 Exam Dates Events Dates Availability of Application Form Jan 5, 2026, to April 6, 2026. Last Date to Fill up the Application Form April 6, 2026. Correction & Update window10 Mat to 14 May 2026 Admit Card Download May 15, 2026. Date of NEST Examination June 6, 2026 (2:00 PM - 5:30 PM). Results Date second week of July 2026 NEST 2026 Eligibility Criteria The eligibility criteria for the NEST exam is as follows: Eligibility: Candidates must have passed Class XII (Science) in 2024, 2025, or 2026 with at least 60% aggregate marks (55% for SC/ST/Divyangjan). Candidates should have passed Class 12. Candidates who have appeared for their Class 12 exams in 2022 are also eligible to apply. Candidates should have studied a combination of three subjects - Biology, Mathematics, Chemistry and Physics in Classes 11 and 12. NEST 2026 Eligiblity Criteria The candidates who have cleared the 12th Standard examination or equivalent in 2022, 2023 or those who will be appearing for the 12th Standard examination or equivalent in 2024, irrespective of category and age, will be considered to be eligible for admission to the Integrated M.Sc. programme of NISER/CEBS in 2024. At least 60% marks in aggregate (or equivalent grade) in Class XII examination from any recognized Board in India. For Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST) candidates and for Divyangjan candidates, the minimum requirement is 55%. Candidate should secure a position in the NEST 2024 merit list. NEST 2026 Application Fee The NEST 2025 application fee for different categories is mentioned below. General/ OBC: INR 1400 Female Candidates: INR 700 SC/ ST/ PwD: INR 700 NEST Exam Pattern 2026 Highlights The NEST exam pattern highlights are as given below. Exam Name: NEST 2025 Exam Mode: Online i.e., Computer-Based Test Number of Papers: 1 Number of Sections: 5 Name of the Subjects: General Ability, Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Biology Type of Questions: Multiple Type Questions (MCQs) Number of Questions: 230 Maximum Marks Considered: 180 Marking Scheme: +1 for Every Correct Answer Negative Marking: Only for Section 2 to Section 5 Duration of the Exam: 3 Hours and 30 Minutes Language: English NEST 2026 Exam Pattern Section-wise Marks Distribution For each section marks allocated differ. Weightage of marks given to each section varies. These details are provided below. Section 1 (General Ability): 30 Section 2 (Physics): 50 Section 3 (Chemistry): 50 Section 4 (Mathematics): 50 Section 5 (Biology): 50 Refer to the offcial publisher here

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Andhra Pradesh Engineering Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test

AP EAPCET (formerly known as AP EAMCET) is a state-level entrance exam conducted by Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Kakinada (JNTUK) on behalf of Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE) for admission to undergraduate courses in the field of engineering, agriculture and pharmacy science offered at colleges in Andhra Pradesh. AP EAMCET 2025 Dates Events Dates Release of AP EAMCET Notification 2026 03-02-2026 (Tuesday) Final date to submit the application form (without late fee) 07-03-2026 (Saturday) Release of admit card 12-05-2026 (Tuesday) to 15-05-2026 (Friday) and 18-05-2026 (Monday) Correction of Online Data already submitted by the candidates 26-03-2026 (Thursday) to 28-03-2026 (Saturday) AP EAMCET 2026 exam date 12-05-2026 (Tuesday) to 15-05-2026 (Friday) and 18-05-2026 (Monday) Release of Preliminary keys (Agriculture & Pharmacy) 23-05-2026 (Saturday) Announcement of result 01-06-2026 (Monday) AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2025 Highlights Exam Name: AP EAPCET or Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture & Pharmacy Common Entrance Test Conducting Body: Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Kakinada on behalf of APSCHE Exam Level : State-level Periodicity: Once a year Mode of Registration: Online Exam Mode: Computer Based Test Type & Number of Questions : Objective, 160 questions Validity of AP EAPCET score: One year AP EAMCET 2025 Eligibility Criteria The eligibility criteria required for AP EAMCET 2024 can be checked from the official website. The information brochure of AP EAMCET consists of all the informations regarding the required eligibility criteria. It is advisable for applicants to check all the eligibility requirements before filling the application form because they fail to satisfy any of the requirements then they will not be able to fill the form. The eligibility criteria consist of informations such as Nationality, Age limit, Qualification details, etc. The nationality of the applicants should be an Indian/ PIO/ OCI. Applicants who are an inhabitant of Andhra Pradesh & Tamil Nadu state must satisfy all the requirements of the local & non-local status. Applicants must have acquired class XIIth with a combination of subjects such as PCM/PBV.Sc./PCB/PBAgr./PBF.Sc. Applicants who have acquired a 3 years Diploma degree in Engineering will also be eligible to apply. The age of applicants should lie between the required range of Lower age limit and upper age limit as mentioned in the table below: Courses Lower Age Limit Upper Age Limit Engineering, B.Pharmacy 16 years No Upper Limit B.Tech. (FS & T) / B.Sc. (Agr. Engg) / B.V.Sc. & A.H. / B.F.Sc 17 years 22 year (25 for SC/ST) Pharm-D 17 years No Upper Limit AP EAMCET 2022 Exam Pattern Last year, AP EAMCET was conducted in online mode and this year it is also expected to be the same. Applicants will have to visit the allocated exam center to appear for this online test. To check other details of the exam pattern like Language, Duration, Marking Scheme, etc. you can read the below section. Exam Mode: Online mode i.e. CBT (Computer Based Test) Language Medium: Bilingual i.e. Telugu and English Total Number No. of Questions: 160 Questions Type of Questions: MCQs i.e. Multiple Choice Questions Sections: 3 for Engineering course while 4 for Medical & Agriculture Total Duration: 3 Hours (180 Minutes) Marking Scheme: 1 mark will be assigned for each correct answer. Negative Marking: No negative marking will be there for a wrong answer. The AP EAMCET 2022 has been scheduled by JNTUK into 2 sessions. The exam paper will be split into 3 sections; Section A – Physics Section B – Chemistry Section C – Biology/Mathematics The highlights of AP EAMCET 2022 Exam Pattern has been listed below: Mode of Exam: Online i.e. CBT (Computer Based Test) Type of Questions: MCQs i.e. Multiple Choice Questions Exam Duration: 180 Minutes Medium of Exam: Bilingual i.e. English & Telugu Total Marks: 160 Marking Scheme: 1 mark will be assigned for each correct answer Negative Marking: No negative marking

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Gujarat Common Entrance Test

Gujarat Common Entrance Test is commonly known as GUJCET. Gujarat Secondary & Higher Secondary Education Board (GSEB) conducts GUJCET every year for admission into Engineering and Pharmacy courses in various institutions located in Gujarat. GUJCET 2026 Exam Dates (Tentative) Know exam dates related to GUJCET 2026 for various events: Event Dates Release of Notification Starting of the Application process first week of January 2026End of the registration process 7 Jan 2026 Availability of admit Card expected in the 2nd week of March 2026GUJCET 2026 Exam Date March 29, 2026 (10 AM - 4 PM)Final Answer Key Declaration of Result 5 May 2026 GUJCET 2026 Eligibility Criteria The eligibility refers to the terms and conditions that a candidate who appears for the exam must satisfy to take the GUJCET 2024. exam. Suppose a candidate clears the exam but does not fit the eligibility criteria. In that case, they will be disqualified from the admission process as soon as the authority discovers this at any stage in the process. So a candidate must meet the following GUJCET 2024. Eligibility criteria. Some of the eligibility criteria are discussed below. Nationality Candidates have to be a citizen of India in order to satisfy the GUJCET eligibility criteria 2026. Domicile Candidates have to be permanent residents of the state of Gujarat. The domicile rules are as follows. The candidate must fall under any one of the points mentioned below. The candidate must be a Gujarat resident by birth The candidate must have passed 10+2 in a school situated in Gujarat Parents of the candidate must belong to Gujarat and must be living there at the time of admission Age The age of the candidate should not be less than 17 years. Educational Qualifications The educational qualification required to be eligible for the GUJCET exam are as follows. Candidates should have passed Class 12 from institutions recognized by Gujarat Secondary and Higher Secondary Board. Even the final year candidates of class 12 can apply for this exam. Applicants must have secured a minimum of 45% of marks (General Category) and 40% (Reserved Category) of marks in Class 12 examinations. GUJCET 2025 Exam Pattern Candidates must know the exam pattern of GUJCET 2026 to fetch more marks and crack the exam. The Gujarat Secondary & Higher Secondary Educational Board will decide the GUJCET 2022 Exam pattern based on which the exam will be conducted. The pattern summary is tabulated below. Mode of Exam: Offline (Pen and Paper Based Test) Medium: English/Hindi/Gujarati Sections: Mathematics - 40 questions, Physics - 40 questions, Chemistry - 40 questions, Biology - 40 question Type of Questions: Objective (Multiple Choice Questions) Number of Questions: 120 questions GUJCET 2025 Cut Off Every year Gujarat Secondary & Higher Secondary Educational Board publishes the GUJCET cut off 2024. Candidates who clear the cut off will be called for further rounds of the admission process. It is essential for candidates to clear the eligibility requirements in order to secure a seat. Some of the important factors that are considered for cut off are listed below. Performance of the candidate in the qualifying exam Previous years cut off trends The total number of candidates who appeared for the exam The total number of questions in the paper. The difficulty level of the paper Seat availability GUJCET 2026 Reservation There is a certain percentage of seats that are reserved for different category students under GUJCET 2022. The provided below depicts the percentage of reserved seats: Scheduled Caste (SC): 7% Scheduled Tribe (ST): 15% Socially and Educationally Backward Classes, including widows and orphans of any caste: 27% Unreserved Economically Weaker Sections: 10% Persons with Disability (PwD): 5% Children of Defence Personnel and Ex-Servicemen: 1%

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Telangana State Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test

TS EAMCET exam stands for Telangana Engineering, Agriculture & Medical Common Entrance Test. TS EAMCET is a state-level entrance examination for the students to get admissions for Agricultural, Medical, and Engineering courses such as B.Sc (Hons), B.Tech, B.V.Sc, B.Pharma, B.F.Sc, and Pharma-D in colleges of Telangana. Aspirants who qualify for this exam are eligible to take admission into the best colleges of Telangana. The students may get admission to government colleges and private ones, which are based only in Telangana. Those aspirants who qualify for the entrance exam could take admission to various engineering and medical colleges. The Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University conducts the TS EAMCET exam to select students for various institutes in Hyderabad. Given below are the highlights of the TS EAMCET 2025 exam. Exam Name: TS EAMCET Full Form: Telangana State Engineering Agriculture & Medical Common Entrance Test Conducting Body: Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University (JNTUH), Hyderabad Level: State Level Category: Undergraduate Mode of Exam: Online Medium: Urdu, English, and Telugu Duration: 3 Hours TS EAMCET 2025 Important Dates Events Dates TS EAMCET 2025 Application Form Start Date 19-02-2026 (Thursday) TS EAMCET 2025 Application Form Last Date 04-04-2026 (Saturday) Application Correction Window 06-04-2026 (Monday) to 08-04-2026 (Wednesday) Last Date for Submission of Online Applications (With a Late Fee of INR 250) 10-04-2026 (Friday) Last Date for Submission of Online Applications (With a Late Fee of INR 500) 15-04-2026 (Wednesday) Last date to submit the application form (with late fee of Rs. 2500) 20-04-2026 (Monday) Final date to submit the application form (with late fee of Rs. 5000) 24-04-2026 (Friday) Hall Ticket Download 23-04-2026 (Thursday) onwards27-04-2026 (Monday) onwards TS EAMCET 2025 Exam Date 04-05-2026to11-05-2026 Results For detail dates on the official website click here TS EAMCET 2026 Eligibility Criteria Candidates are advised to go through the pointers mentioned below carefully. It was essential to meet the TS EAMCET 2022 eligibility criteria before applying for the exam. Domicile The candidate should be an Indian national. Candidates should belong to the state of Telangana/ Andhra Pradesh. To fulfil the eligibility criteria, they should fulfil Local/ Non-Local status requirements as laid down in Telangana/ Andhra Pradesh. Person of Indian Origin (PIO)/ and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) can also apply for the exam. Age Candidates applying for Engineering and Pharmacy courses should be at least 16 years of age on or before Dec 31, 2024. Educational Qualifications Eligibility criteria are different for different courses. Candidates should have passed or appeared for the final exam of 10+2. The exam should have consisted of Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry as mandatory subjects conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Telangana / Andhra Pradesh. Candidates must have passed in 10+2 or appear to be eligible to apply for TS EAMCET. Candidates must have scored at least 45% of marks or 40% of marks in the case of SC/ST/OBC. Subject Groups For admissions to the Pharmacy or Agriculture program, the applicant could only appear for PCB (Physics, Chemistry, and Biology) subject group. Candidates could only appear in the PCM (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics) for the Engineering program. Diploma: Candidates who have completed their diploma degree can also appear for TS EAMCET 2026 TS EAMCET 2025 Exam Pattern Candidates must be thoroughly been aware of the TS EAMCET 2026 exam pattern as it gave them an advantage in preparation and cracking the exam. The highlights of the TS EAMCET exam pattern are listed below. Mode of Examination: TS EAMCET 2026 was conducted online, i.e., a Computer-based Test (CBT). Duration: TS EAMCET 2026 was conducted for 3 hours (180 minutes) Questions: A total of 160 questions were asked from subjects like Mathematics (80 questions), Physics (40 questions), and Chemistry (40 questions). Question Type: The question paper has objective-type questions. Language: The TS EAMCET 2026 exam was available for English, Telugu, or Urdu candidates. Marking Scheme: Each question carried one mark, and there was no negative marking. Unattempted questions also did not affect the scores. TS EAMCET 2025 Participating Colleges Through TS EAMCET more than 300 Engineering, Medical/Pharmacy Colleges, and Universities offer admissions to professional courses i.e. B.E./BTech, B.Pharm, B.Sc., etc. Check here some of the institutes for TS EAMCET colleges list - Anwar-Uloom College of Pharmacy, Hyderabad Sree Chaitanya Institute of Pharmaceutical Science, Karimnagar CVM College of Pharmacy, Karimnagar Jyothishmathi Institute of Pharmaceutical Science, Karimnagar Vaageswari College of Pharmacy, Karimnagar ST. Mary's College of Pharmacy, Secunderabad Sultan Ul-Uloom College of Pharmacy, Banjara Hills Sree College of Pharmacy, Kothagudem Smt Sarojini Ramulamma College of Pharmacy, Mahabubnagar Dhanvanthari College of Pharmaceutical Science, Mahabubnagar

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Bharati Vidyapeeth Deemed University Common Entrance Test

Bharati Vidyapeeth University which is based in Pune, conducts the BVP CET 2026 exam for candidates aspiring to enroll into various Undergraduate and Postgraduate courses offered by one of the top universities in Maharashtra, Bharati Vidyapeeth. BVP CET 2026 Highlights Conducting Body: Bharati Vidyapeeth University Official Website: bvuniversity.edu.in Exam Type: University Level Eligibility Criteria: Must have a Bachelor’s Degree with 50% marks in aggregate Mode of Application: Online Exam Mode: Home-based Online Proctored exam Duration: 3 hours BVP CET Courses Offered Courses Offered through BVP CET UG Courses B.Pharm BHMCT B.Sc (H&HA) B.Sc Nursing PB B.Sc Nursing BASLP BASLP (Lateral) B.Optom B.Optom (Lateral) PG Courses M.Pharm M.Sc Nursing MASLP MOptom BVP CET 2025 Eligibility Criteria Candidates are advised to go through the eligibility criteria defined by the organizing authorities for BVP CET 2022, carefully, to avoid unnecessary mistakes during the admission procedure. The BVP has set some criteria for taking the exam. The candidates must ensure that they abide by the eligibility criteria before applying for the exam. Education Qualification: Candidates should have passed class 10th and 12th from any recognized university. The requirement of scores based on categories is given below: General category candidates should obtain a minimum of 50% aggregate marks SC/ST category candidates must obtain a minimum of 45% marks. Age limit: For Engineering and Medical programs, the minimum age limit is 17 years. Nationality: There is no condition on the nationality of a candidate. So any candidate from across the world can apply for taking the test of BVP CET. BVP CET 2025 Exam Pattern Candidates should have an understanding of the exam pattern to excel in the exam. Candidates need to go through the Exam Pattern carefully to avoid any unnecessary mistakes during the attempt. The BVP CET 2026 exam is conducted in offline mode (Pen and Paper based) and online mode (Computer Based Test). Mode of Exam: Offline and Online Type of Exam: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Number of Questions: 200 Duration: Medical, Engineering, PG Dental and PG Medical: 3 hours Marking Scheme: 1 mark for every correct answer Total Marks: 200 BVP CET 2026 Important DatesApplication start date for BVP CET 2026November 15, 2025Last date to fill and submit the BVP CET 2026 application form M. Pharmacy / Pharm D (PB)B.Pharm./ Pharm.D.5th June 2026Release of BVP CET 2026 admit cardJune 2026BVP CET 2026 exam date13th June 2026BVP CET result date 202619th June 2026

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Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination

The Medical Council of Canada (MCC) grants a qualification in medicine known as the Licentiate of the Medical Council of Canada (LMCC) to physicians who have met its requirements. The LMCC is a part of the Canadian Standard, the set of requirements physicians need to meet to apply for a full licence to practise medicine in Canada. Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination Part I The MCCQE Part I is a one-day, computer-based test that assesses the critical medical knowledge and clinical decision-making ability of a candidate at a level expected of a medical student who is completing their medical degree in Canada. What is the MCCQE Part I? The MCCQE Part I is a summative examination that assesses the critical medical knowledge and clinical decision-making ability of a candidate at a level expected of a medical student who is completing their medical degree in Canada. The examination is based on the MCC Objectives, which are organized under the CanMEDS roles. Candidates graduating and completing the MCCQE Part I typically enter supervised practice. Aside from formal accreditation processes of the undergraduate and postgraduate education programs, the MCCQE Part I is the only national standard for medical schools across Canada and, therefore, is administered at the end of medical school. The MCCQE Part I is a one-day, computer-based test. You are allowed up to four hours in the morning session to complete 210 Multiple-Choice Questions. You are allowed up to three and a half hours in the afternoon session for the Clinical Decision-Making component, which consists of 38 cases with short-menu and short-answer write-in questions. The exam is based on a Blueprint that assesses your performance across two broad categories: Dimensions of care, covering the spectrum of medical care; Physician activities, reflecting a physician’s scope of practice and behaviours. Each category has four domains, and each is assigned a specific content weighting on the exam: Application and eligibility MCCQE Part I We are delivering the MCCQE Part I in Canada and internationally in over 80 countries through our vendor Prometric. Prometric is an internationally recognized firm with more than 20 years’ experience in exam development and administration for professional sectors. This change to Prometric ensures broad access for candidates to take the MCCQE Part I. Candidates have the option to take their exam at an available Prometric test centre, with physical distancing measures in place, or through remote proctoring on a first come first serve basis. Application to the MCCQE Part I If you meet the eligibility requirements indicated below, you can apply for the MCCQE Part I at any time. To apply, you must open an account at physiciansapply.ca or log into your existing account. To begin your application, click on “Examinations”, “Apply for an Exam”, then follow the prompts to submit your payment. Your physiciansapply.ca account will guide you through the process and indicate the documents that you need to submit as part of your application. For exam dates, see Examination at a glance. If the Medical Council of Canada (MCC) has previously reviewed all the necessary documentation, you may receive quick notification that your MCCQE Part I application has been accepted. Otherwise, please allow up to three weeks for your application to be processed. Note: An exam application that includes a request for test accommodations will require up to nine weeks processing time, once all the eligibility requirements have been fulfilled and Candidate Affairs receives all the required supporting documentation. After your application is accepted, you will have one year to take the MCCQE Part I at an available Prometric test centre or through remote proctoring on a first come first serve basis. This one-year period is called the eligibility window. Your eligibility window expires once you take (or withdraw from) the exam. Eligibility requirements To apply to the MCCQE Part I, you must be a graduate from, or a student who is expected to complete all requirements to graduate from: A medical school accredited by the Committee on Accreditation of Canadian Medical Schools (CACMS); or A medical school listed in the World Directory of Medical Schools and identified by a Canada Sponsor Note indicating it is an acceptable medical school in Canada; or A United States School of Osteopathic Medicine accredited by the American Osteopathic Association. If you are a student: You can apply up to 15 months prior to your expected date of graduation. Once your application is approved, however, your eligibility window will begin 12 months from your expected date of graduation. For example: Expected date of graduation: June 1, 2024 Application date: as early as March 1, 2023 Eligibility window: June 1, 2023 to June 1, 2024 If you are a graduate: Your medical degree/diploma must be in progress of source verification or have been successfully source verified. For more information, click here.

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Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board Test

The Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) test provides the main route for International Medical Graduates (IMGs) to demonstrate that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to practise medicine in the United Kingdom (UK). PLAB is a two part assessment that overseas doctors (or international medical graduates), from outside the European Economic Area and Switzerland, usually need to pass before they can legally practise medicine in the UK. It is conducted by the General Medical Council of the United Kingdom. The test is designed to assess the depth of knowledge and level of medical and communication skills possessed by the international medical graduates. The PLAB blueprint sets out what candidates are expected to demonstrate in the test and beyond. The PLAB test has 2 parts: Part 1: Consists of a multiple choice format examination paper with 180 SBA's (One Hundred Eighty Single Best Answer questions) lasting 3 hours, This part is conducted in a number of countries including Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, Bangladesh, Egypt, India, Pakistan, Nigeria and Sri Lanka. Part 2: Consists of an objective structured clinical examination (OSCE). This part is only available in Manchester. It consists of 16 clinical stations. All the stations are eight minutes long, plus two minutes reading time. The standard of both parts of the PLAB exam is set at the level of competence of a doctor at the start of Foundation Year 2 (F2) in the Foundation Programme. PLAB Exam Requirements Given below is the eligibility criteria for the medical graduates appearing for the test: The candidates’ primary qualification must be accepted for limited registration by an institution listed in the World Health Organisation Directory of Medical Schools. The candidates should have appeared for IELTS and secured a minimum score of 7 overall and a minimum of 7.0 for all of the four language modules. Additionally, the candidates should complete a minimum of 12 months of postgraduate clinical experience at a teaching hospital. Important Dates and Deadlines Exam date (Plab 1)2026 Results Date February 12, May 2126 March 2026, 2 July 2026. August and NovemberMid-August, Mid-November PLAB Exam Centres The 1st Part of PLAB is conducted across various states in India namely: Bangalore Chennai Hyderabad Kolkata Mumbai New Delhi Countries Part 1 of the PLAB test can be conducted in: India Egypt Bulgaria Dubai Nigeria Pakistan Exam pattern The PLAB test consists of 2 parts : PLAB 1 – This exam is conducted in MCQ format consisting of 180 questions that have to be solved in 3 hours. PLAB 2 – this part comprises an objective structured clinical examination (OSCE) which consists of 18 clinical stations. Each station is 18 minutes long with 2 minutes of reading time. The exam is set at the level of competence of a doctor at the start of Foundation Year 2 (F2) in the Foundation Programme. PLAB Exam Syllabus The syllabus for PLAB 1 and PLAB 2 is usually based on the standard medical textbooks used in UK medical schools. Students can also refer to the GMC booklets ‘Advice to Candidates’. There are separate booklets for Part 1 and Part 2.

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Australian Medical Council Examinations

AMC examinations (Standard Pathway) The AMC examinations are set at the level of attainment of medical knowledge, clinical skills and attitudes required of newly qualified graduates of Australian medical schools who are about to begin intern training. They consist of a computer adaptive test (CAT) multiple-choice question (MCQ) examination, and either an AMC Clinical examination or Workplace based assessment. Your examination status must be recorded as “Eligible” to be able to proceed with the AMC examinations process (refer to flowchart below): The AMC CAT MCQ Examination tests knowledge of the principles and practice of medicine in the fields of general practice, internal medicine, paediatrics, psychiatry, surgery, and obstetrics and gynaecology. The AMC Clinical Examination assesses clinical skills in medicine, surgery, obstetrics, gynaecology, paediatrics and psychiatry. It also assesses ability to communicate with patients, their families and other health workers. The AMC Workplace-Based Assessment – before applying for a WBA program directly to a WBA provider, you must have passed the AMC CAT MCQ Examination and granted registration by the Medical Board of Australia in order to be employed in an approved clinical position for WBA. You must pass the AMC CAT MCQ Examination before you can apply for either the AMC Clinical Examination or Workplace based assessment. Workplace based assessment (Standard Pathway) Some IMGs in the Standard Pathway can have their clinical skills and knowledge assessed in the workplace by AMC-accredited providers as an alternative to the AMC Clinical Examination. However, the program currently has limited availability, with a range of assessment programs available. The AMC is not responsible for securing employment for workplace based assessment. Workplace based assessment of your performance in everyday clinical practice in the Australian healthcare setting tracks your progress in integrating clinical knowledge and skills as a basis for safe and effective clinical judgments and decision making. It also assesses how well you deal with patients and whether you work productively in a team of healthcare professionals. The content and the assessment standard of accredited workplace based assessment programs are approved by the AMC and overseen by members of the AMC Board of Examiners, who ensure that the format and content of the assessments are consistent with the required standard. The assessment methods for workplace based assessment programs are rigorous and structured. Disciplines covered include medicine and surgery; obstetrics and gynaecology; paediatrics; and psychiatry. Eligibility Before you can take part in a workplace based performance assessment, you must have passed the AMC CAT MCQ Examination and been granted limited registration by the Medical Board of Australia. You need limited registration to be employed in an approved clinical position for workplace based assessment. MCQ Examination The AMC Computer Adaptive Test (CAT) MCQ Examination is a computer-administered fully integrated multi-choice question examination delivered in one 3.5-hour session in examination centres worldwide. The examination consists of 150 A-type MCQs (one correct response from five options) It focuses on essential medical knowledge involving understanding of the disease process; clinical examination and diagnosis; and investigation, therapy and management. You are expected to complete all 150 items. Failure to complete all 150 scored items in the examination may lead to insufficient information for a reliable determination of your ability and therefore a result on the AMC adaptive scale. The examination result is recorded as ‘Fail —Insufficient data to obtain result’. How to apply for the MCQ examination You apply to the AMC for authorisation to schedule for a MCQ examination event, either online or by requesting a paper form. You will be issued with a 12-month authorisation to schedule for one MCQ examination event covered in that 12-month period. MCQ examination venues Pearson VUE conduct the CAT MCQ examination on behalf of the Australian Medical Council (AMC). AMC CAT MCQ examination events are held at various venues in Australia and other countries. The Pearson VUE test centres which administer AMC CAT MCQ examinations have been selected based on the high security standards which are enforced. Clinical Examination Structure of the clinical examination The AMC clinical examination is an integrated multidisciplinary structured clinical assessment. The examination comprises 16 assessed stations and 4 rest stations. It is administered either online via a video conferencing format at a location organised by the candidate, or when health restrictions allow, at the National Test Centre in Melbourne (NTC). Candidates will rotate through a series of stations and will undertake a variety of clinical tasks. All candidates in a clinical examination session will be assessed against the same stations. Most stations are of 10 minutes duration (comprising two minutes reading time, and eight minutes assessment time). Stations may use actual patients, simulated patients, or videotaped patient presentations. Other relevant materials, such as charts, digital images and photographs may also be used in the examination. Pre-requisites for the clinical examination Candidates must have passed the MCQ examination before being eligible to proceed to the clinical examination. Clinical Exam Technology requirements The following technology requirements MUST be strictly complied with, in order to be eligible to take the online clinical examination and for the examination to work properly, should candidates NOT comply with these requirements, they will NOT be permitted to sit for the examination. The device used to undertake the examination must be either a desktop or laptop computer. Tablets and mobile devices cannot be used. Candidates need to ensure they have administrator privileges on their device to enable software installation. The computer must be running the Windows 10 operating system. This can be PC, or an Apple computer set up to dual-boot into Windows 10. OS X is not supported. Screen size needs to be a minimum of 14 inches. A webcam positioned at roughly eye level. Headphone use is compulsory. Candidates must have a 2nd pair of headphones in the event that the first pair experience technology issues. Plug-in headphones / earphones with a microphone are required. Wireless or Bluetooth headphones are not permitted due to risks of battery failure and poor quality audio connection. Failure to wear headphones will result in the Candidate being withdrawn on the day of the examination. Reliable, high speed internet connection. Must have a room available with only themselves being present in the room during the examination and ensure that it is free of distractions for the whole examination. English language proficiency The Medical Board of Australia requires international medical graduates to provide proof of English language proficiency for all registration categories unless it has granted an exemption. Therefore, all applicants are advised to make arrangements to obtain that proof before they apply under any of the assessment pathways. English language proficiency is a requirement of the Medical Board of Australia, not of the AMC. Therefore, the Medical Board is the body responsible for granting exemptions from its requirement. For more information, click here.In June 2025, the exam sessions are scheduled from June 16th to June 21st

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Foreign Medical Graduates Exam

The full form of FMGE is Foreign Medical Graduates Exam. It is a computer-based online exam conducted to maintain a certain standard among medical students and enable Overseas Indian students to practice in India. If candidates possess a primary medical qualification from a recognized medical college abroad and wish to pursue a medical career in India, then they must attempt this exam to be affiliated provisionally or permanently with the State Medical Council or Medical Council of India. NBE conducts the FMGE Exam bi-annually i.e. June and December. FMGE Exam Highlights Exam Full Form: Foreign Medical Graduates Examination Eligibility: Recognised degree equivalent to MBBS Conducting Body: National Board of Examinations (NBE) Exam Frequency: Twice a Year Number of attempts: 3 Exam Level: National Exam Language: English Mode of Application: Online Exam Mode: Online FMGE Exam Dates Event Dates Application Begins 28 Apr–17 May 2025 Application Ends June 2025 session was May 17, 2025,Final Correction window June 6th to June 9th, 2025Admit Card Date 22–26 Jul 2025 Date of Exam 26 Jul 2025 Result Declaration 26 Aug 2025 FMGE June 2025 Eligibility FMGE June Eligibility is defined by NBE. Candidates who wish to appear for the exam must ensure they fulfil the following requirements set by the body: Nationality: The candidate must be a citizen of India or an overseas citizen of India. Qualification: Candidates must have a primary medical qualification that is recognised by the concerned Indian Embassy. Document Requirement: Candidates who fail to submit the required documents will not be eligible to appear for the examination. Only those who possess Eligibility Certificate (if applicable), Provisional Pass/Degree Certificate of their Primary Medical Qualification may apply. Foreign Eligibility: Candidates who are seeking either a provisional or permanent registration in India do not have to qualify for the screening test if they hold an undergraduate medical qualification from 1. Australia, 2. Canada, 3. New Zealand, 4. United Kingdom, 5. United States of America. Such candidates must also be a recognized medical practitioner in the aforementioned countries. Pakistan Students: Candidates who have a primary medical qualification from Pakistan must have their security clearance from the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Govt of India. FMGE June 2025 Exam Pattern The FMGE exam is conducted in an online mode at the chosen centre. It is a 5-hour long paper divided into PART A and B. Given below are the details of the FMGE 2022 Exam Pattern: Total Number of Questions: 300 (Answered in Part A and Part B) Question Type: Multiple Choice Question Duration of Exam: 5 Hours (2.5 Hours per paper) Maximum Marks: 300 Marks per question: 1 Negative Marking: No Negative Marking The FMGE exam requires a minimum of 150 out of 300 to qualify, i.e. 50%. However, the exam pass percentage is extremely low, ranging from 10 to 15% every year. FMGE Dec 2024 Syllabus The FMGE 2025 Syllabus comprises Pre and Para Clinical subjects, Medicine and Allied subjects, and General Surgery and Allied subjects. They are discussed below for the reference of the candidates. The syllabus for Pre and Para Clinical subjects are: Biochemistry Forensic Science Pathology Physiology Anatomy Microbiology Pharmacology Medicine and Allied subjects The syllabus for Medicine and Allied subjects are: Psychiatry Radiotherapy Medicine Dermatology and STD General Surgery and Allied subjects The syllabus for General Surgery and Allied subjects are: Anesthesiology Radio Diagnosis General surgery Orthopaedics Community Medicine Ophthalmology Paediatrics Otorhinolaryngology Obstetrics and Gynaecology

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Chandigarh University Common Entrance Test

Chandigarh University conducts the CUCET Exam. The exam is conducted every year to offer admission to various UG and PG courses in disciplines like engineering, management, science, journalism and communication, pharmacy, hotel management, computer application, agriculture, etc. CUCET is mandatory for admission to the Chandigarh University for the following courses: UG Courses Bachelor of Pharmacy (B. Pharmacy) B. Sc (Hons) Agriculture B.Sc. Nursing PG Courses Master of Pharmacy (Pharmaceutics) Master of Pharmacy (Pharmacology) Master of Pharmacy (Industrial Pharmacy) Pharm D. CUCET 2024 (Phase I) Eligibility Criteria For UG Courses A student who has scored 50% or more marks in their secondary Education (10+2) or student appearing for secondary education (10+2) from a recognized Board (CBSE/PSEB/ICSE or any other recognized State/National Board). For PG Courses A student who has scored 50% or more marks in their Graduation from a recognized University. CUCET 2024 Exam Dates Candidates can check the exam dates of CUCET 2024 below. Events Dates Phase 1- Registration Start Date 27 Oct 2025 Phase 1 - Registration End Date 30 April 2025 Phase 1 - CUCET Exam Last Date 2024 28 Oct 2025 to 1 May 2025 Phase 2 - Registration Start Date 30 July 2025 Phase 2 - Registration End Date 9 Oct 2025 Phase 2 - CUCET Exam Date 30 Jul to 10 Oct 2025 Declaration of results Real-Time Results / Same Day Result CUCET 2024 (Phase I) Exam Pattern Exam Mode Online Exam Exam Type Theory Duration (in Minutes) 120 Marking Scheme One mark for each correct answer. Negative Marking No negative marking Number of Questions 100 Languages English CUCET 2024 (Phase I) Syllabus The CUCET 2024 syllabus will vary according to the courses. In most of the courses, there are four subjects in the syllabus including English language. The section-wise syllabus for various programs is mentioned below: English: Grammar, Reading Comprehension, Vocabulary, and Composition Mathematics: Sets, Relations and Functions, Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations, Matrices & Determinants, Permutations & Combinations, Mathematical Induction, Sequence & Series, Integral Calculus, Vector Algebra, Trigonometry, Coordinate Geometry, Binomial Theorem, Limit, Continuity & Differentiability, Differential Equations, 3-D Geometry, Statistics & Probability, Mathematical Reasoning Physics: Physics & Measurement, Kinematics, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy & Power, Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Properties of Solids and Liquids, Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory of Gases, Electrostatics, Oscillation and Waves, Current Electricity, Electromagnetic Waves, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices, Communication System Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry, States of Matter, Atomic Structure, Chemical Thermodynamics, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, Solutions, Equilibrium, Hydrogen and its compounds, Basic principles, and techniques in organic chemistry, Hydrocarbons, Principles Related to Practical Chemistry Biology: Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health, Principle and Inheritance of Variation, Evolution, Human Health and Diseases, Strategies for Enhancements and Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare, Biotechnology-Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and its Applications, Organisms and Population, Ecosystem, Biodiversity, and its Conservation, Environmental Issues General Studies: Science and Technology, Indian Society, Art & Culture, Freedom Movements, and Struggle, Constitutional Values, Social Justice and Human Rights Economics: Macroeconomics and Microeconomics: Introduction, Consumer Equilibrium and Demand, Money and Banking, Balance of Payments, Monetary Policies of RBI, Budget, National Income, and Related Aggregates Get details of the application process here.

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Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology Entrance Exam

The KIIT University (Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology) Bhubaneshwar, Odisha conducts the KIITEE exam every year to provide admissions into various of its Undergraduate (UG) and Postgraduate (PG) programmes. The candidates have to take KIITEE 2024 as a computer-based test, online. Candidates can apply for KIITEE 2024 through the KIITEE application form released on the official website. Nearly 1.5 lakh candidates appeared for KIITEE exam last year. The number of test-takers is likely to go up. KIITEE 2025 Exam Dates Release of application November 10, 2024 Last date to apply Phase 1 - April 8, 2025 Phase 2 - June 8, 2025 Phase 3 - June 4,2025 Exam Dates Phase 1: April 16, 2025 to April 20, 2025 Phase 2: June 14 to June 18 2025 Phase 3: July 6 to July 8 2025 KITEE 2025 results Phase 1 - Phase 2 - Phase 3 - KIITEE 2025 Exam Pattern Knowing KIITEE exam pattern is one of the most important things to be successful in the examination. The language for the question paper will be in English language. There will be 150 MCQ of 3 marks. 1 mark will be deducted as a negative marking for incorrect answers. The total time duration is 2.5 hours KIITEE 2025 Eligibility Criteria for UG Courses Courses Eligibility Criteria B.Sc Nursing - 4 years Candidates should have qualified 10+2 or equivalent exam with Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English (PCBE).The candidates must have secured at least 45% marks in aggregate.The lower age limit of a candidate should be 17 years as on December 31, 2023, and the upper age limit should be 35 years as on December 31, 2023. KIITEE 2025 Eligibility Criteria for PG Courses Courses Eligibility Criteria 2 years M.Sc Candidates should possess a Bachelor's degree in any branch of Science/Agriculture/Pharmacy/Veterinary/Engineering/Technology/Medicine (MBBS/MDS) with at least 55% marks aggregate.Candidates born on or after July 1, 1996, are eligible to apply. M.Sc Nursing (2 years) Candidate should be a registered nurse or registered midwife or equivalent with any State Nursing Registration Council. The minimum education qualification should be a degree in B.Sc Nursing/B.Sc Hons. Nursing/Post Basic Nursing with a 55% minimum aggregate (5% relaxation for SC/ST candidates). Candidates should have undergone any of the above courses from an institution recognized by the Indian Nursing Council. Minimum 1-year of experience after Basic B.Sc Nursing is required. The candidate should be medically fit. Master of Public Health (2 years) Candidates should have a Bachelor's Degree in any Health Science [MBBS/ BDS/ BHMS/ BAMS/ BNYS/ BPT/ B.Sc Nursing (Basic or Post Basic)/ B.Pharm] discipline from a recognized universityThe candidates should have qualified the bachelor's degree with a minimum of 50% marks. Master of Hospital Administration (2 years) Candidates must have qualified Bachelor's Degree in MBBS/BDS/BAMS/BHMS/BNYS/BPT/BSc Nursing (Basic or Post Basic)/BPharm/BSc in Allied Health Sciences/Bachelor's degree in Arts/Commerce/Science/Law from a recognized university with minimum 50% marks in aggregate. M.A. (Yoga Therapy) (2 years) Applying candidates should be graduates in any stream.There are no minimum qualifying marks or age limit given for candidates willing to pursue this course

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Maharashtra Health and Technical Common Entrance Test

The Maharashtra Common Entrance Test, popularly known as MHT CET, is the entrance exam conducted to shortlist candidates for admission to undergraduate Engineering and Pharmacy courses in various colleges of Maharashtra. The exam is conducted every year by the Maharashtra State Common Entrance Test Cell. There are more than 400 institutes in Maharashtra which accepts MHT CET scores for admission to their various Engineering and Pharmacy courses. Candidates belonging to Maharashtra as well as from the other states of India can apply for the MHT CET exam. MH CET 2025 Important Dates Event Dates MHT CET 2025 Application form Start Date 30 Dec 2024–15 Feb 2025 Last date for submitting MHT CET application form 15 Feb 2025 Last date for submitting MHT CET application form (with a late fee) 16 Feb to 22 Feb 2025 MHT CET 2025 Admit Card 3 Apr–5 May 2025 MHT CET 2025 Exam Date (PCB group) 9 Apr–5 May 2025 Results 16, 17 Jun 2025 MHT CET 2025 Eligibility MHT CET 2025 Eligibility Criteria enables Indian nationals to appear for the exam for admission in engineering and pharmacy courses. Candidates must note that there is no upper and lower age limit to appear for the exam but the candidates must have qualified class 12 with a minimum of 45% marks and in the subjects as mentioned below in the table: Particulars Eligibility Criteria Nationality of Candidate Indian Nationals are eligible Age Limit No age limit in MHT CET 2025 MHT CET 2024 Eligibility: Qualifying Exam & Marks All the candidates should have passed the HSC/12th examination or equivalent examination and the candidates appearing for the class 12 examination are also eligible. However, course wise mandatory subjects and minimum qualifying marks are provided in the table below: Course Qualifying Exam Qualifying Marks B.Pharma Passed HSC or its equivalent examination with Physics and Chemistry along with either Mathematics/ Biology At least 45% marks(40% marks for SC/ST/OBC) Pharma D Passed HSC or its equivalent examination with Physics and Chemistry along with either Mathematics/ Biology Or Passed Diploma Course in Pharmacy from affiliated institutes At least 50% marks( 45% marks for SC/ST/OBC) MHT CET 2024 Exam Pattern Based on MHT CET 2024 Exam Pattern, the paper will be held for a total of 150 and 200 questions for PCM and PCB group candidates respectively. Particulars Details Mode of Examination Online Mode Duration of Exam 180 Minutes Question Paper Type Multiple Choice Questions Total number of Questions in PCM 150 Total number of Questions in PCB 200 Total Number of Paper 3 Papers: Paper 1 - Maths Paper 2 - Physics and Chemistry Paper 3 - Biology Medium of examination English, Urdu, Marathi Refer to the official publisher here

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NIPER Joint Entrance Exam

NIPER JEE 2024, or the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research Joint Entrance Exam, is a computer-based exam for postgraduate courses in MPharm, MTech (Pharm), MBA (Pharm) PhD in pharmacy. NIPER itself is the conducting body for the exam. Participating Campuses The entrance test is an exclusive joint entrance exam held by NIPER itself for admission in Masters and PhD programmes in Pharmacy at their seven institutes across India. The seven NIPER campuses are: NIPER, Ahmedabad NIPER, Guwahati NIPER, Hajipur NIPER, Hyderabad NIPER, Kolkata NIPER, Raebareli NIPER S.A.S Nagar (Mohali) NIPER JEE 2024 Eligibility Criteria The candidate should have a Bachelor’s degree in Pharmacy (BPharma) or equivalent programme or Master’s degree in the corresponding programme according to the course they seek to apply for. The passing institute should be recognised by AICTE and PCI. The candidate should have secured 60 per cent or 6.75 GPA (55 per cent or 6.25 CGPA for SC /ST candidates and 50 per cent or 5.75 GPA for PH candidates) in aggregate in the qualifying exam. A valid GATE or NET or GPAT score is required. NIPER JEE 2024 Exam Dates Events Dates Online registration begins on 21st April 2025 (Monday) Online registration ends on 20th May 2025 (Tuesday) NIPER JEE Entrance Exam 10th June 2025 (Tuesday) Download of hall tickets 30th May 2025 (Friday) Result declaration July 2025 NIPER JEE 2022 Exam Centre Ahmedabad Bengaluru Bhopal Bhubaneshwar Chennai Delhi Guwahati Hyderabad Kolkata Lucknow Nagpur Mumbai Patiala Patna Ranchi Vijayawada NIPER JEE 2024 Exam Pattern Candidates planning to appear for the exam can check NIPER JEE Exam Pattern below: Exam Mode: Offline (Pen Paper Based)/Online Number of papers: 1 Number of sections: 1 Question Paper Type: MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) Total Marks: 200 marks Exam duration: 2 hours Exam language: English NIPER JEE 2024 Syllabus NIEPR JEE syllabus covers all the fundamental subjects of pharmacy that a candidate has studied at the graduate level or undergraduate level. It further aims to provide the students with advanced knowledge of biotechnology and clinical research. We have compiled the major list of subjects that will prove beneficial in qualifying NIPER JEE! Medicinal chemistry Natural Products: Pharmacology and toxicology Pharmaceutics and Formulation Pharmaceutical analysis: Biotechnology Practice of Pharmacy Pharmaceutical analysis: Biotechnology Polymers in pharmaceutics. Applications of a spectroscopic technique Pharmaceutics and Formulation Hospital pharmacy & Clinical research NIPER JEE 2024 Application Fee Now that you are familiar with how you can you fill up the NIPER 2024 exam form, below are the details related to the application process of it. Category Application fee General 3000/- OBC 3000/- SC/ST 1500/- Physically handicapped 3000/- NRI 3000/- For more information, click here.

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Medical College Admission Test

Medical College Admission Test (MCAT) is an entrance test for admissions into medical schools in the United States, Canda, Australia, and the Caribbean Islands Countries. This is an international level exam and it is administered by the American Associaton of Medical Colleges (AAMC). The MCAT exam is conducted 25 times in a year and in 21 countries. Candidates can take this exam 3 times over the one year period, 4 times spread over the 2 year period. The candidate can take the exam 7 times in their lifetime. The MCAT exam is excruciatingly long with a length of almost 7.5 hours and candidates are advised to prepare really well since the MCAT has only a limited number of attempts. So candidates should prepare well before the MCAT so as to avoid the possibility of re-take. To prepare candidates must go through mock tests and develop a sitting habit. MCAT 2025 Highlights Exam Name: MCAT Full form: Medical College Admission Test Acronym: MCAT Organizing body: Association of American Medical College (AMMC) Official website: Click Here Exam level: International Languages: English Mode of Exam: Computer-based Question type: Multiple type questions (MCQs) Exam duration: 7 hours 30 minutes MCAT 2025 Eligibility It is important for applicants to go through the eligibility criteria defined by the organizing authorities before attempting the MCAT 2025. Any candidates interested in pursuing a career in Allopathic, Osteopathic, Podiatric, and the veterinary can appear for the MCAT test. Candidates from the U.S and Canada must have a UG degree to be eligible for the exam. International candidates must be pursuing or have completed MBBS to appear for MCAT. Students taking MCAT purposes other than pursuing a career in medicine are required to get special permission from the American Association of Medical colleges (AAMC). MCAT 2025 Exam Pattern & Syllabus The MCAT 2025 exam has a duration of 6 hours and 15 minutes and an overall seated duration of 7 hours and 27 minutes which includes the breaks, optional sections as well as additional questions which are not a part of the actual scored exam. The exam comprises 4 main sections which are: Biological and Biochemical Foundations of Living Systems Chemical and Physical Foundations of Biological Systems Psychological, Social and Biological Foundations of Behavior Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills Given below are the important topics that are primarily tested in the MCAT Exam. Sections MCAT Important Topics Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills Ethics, Philosophy, Population Health, Social science, Humanities Disciplines and studies of Diverse Culture Biological and Biochemical of Foundations of Living system Chemistry: Organic and Inorganic Biology: Cellular and Molecular, Biochemistry (Introductory topics) Natural Science: Research, Reasoning, and Statistics basic Biochemistry concepts, Statistics concepts, and Introductory Research Methods Psychological, Social, Biological Foundations of Behaviour Social and Behavioural Sciences: Scientific Inquiry, Reasoning research Concepts Psychological, Sociology and Biology about the Behavioural and Socio-Cultural Health Determinants, Mental Process and Behaviour, concepts of Psychology and Sociology, Introductory Statistics Concepts and Research Method of Introductory science Chemical and Physical Foundations of Biology Systems Introductory Biochemistry and Biology concepts Chemistry: Organic and Inorganic, concepts of Physics Scientific Inquiry and Reasoning, Research method and Natural Science Introductory Molecular Biology, Introductory, and Statistics concepts

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West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination

The full form of WBJEE is West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination. West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam Board conducts the WBJEE exam for admission into professional courses like Engineering & Technology, Pharmacy, and Architecture. It is a state-level exam, candidates across West Bengal take the WBJEE exam to get admission into these courses. WBJEE 2025 Important Dates Candidates can check the details regarding WBJEE 2025 important dates from the table given below: Events Dates Online application with payment of fees 22 Jan 2025 Last date for registration 23 Feb 2025 Publication of Downloadable Admit Card 17 April 2025 WBJEE 2025 Exam Date 27 April 2025 Results WBJEE 2025 Exam pattern The details about WBJEE Exam pattern 2025 are given below: Type of questions Objective (MCQs) Mode of examination Offline Exam Duration 4 hours (2 hours for each paper) Language of examination English Sections Paper 1 - Mathematics Paper 2 - Physics and Chemistry Total Number of Questions 155 Questions The distribution of questions category wise is explained below: Papers Category-I No. of Questions Category-II No. of Questions Category-III No. of Questions Total Number Of Questions Total Marks Mathematics 50 15 10 75 100 Physics 30 5 5 40 50 Chemistry 30 5 5 40 50 WBJEE 2524 Application Fee The WBJEE application fee for the General category is Rs 500 while for SC/ST/OBC-A/OBC-B is Rs 400. Candidates can pay the application fee via debit/credit card or net banking. Check the application fees below: Categories Application Fee (in Rs) General MaleFemale Third Gender 500400300 SC/ST/OBC-A/OBC-B MaleFemaleThird Gender 400300200 WBJEE 2024 Marking Scheme Category I - Each correct answer will be awarded one mark. An incorrect response will yield a loss of ¼ mark. For any combination of responses with more than one option, the said answer will be treated as incorrect and will yield -1/4 (25% negative) marks. Category II - Only one option is correct, correct response yield two marks. An incorrect response will yield -1/2 (25% negative) marks For any combination of responses with more than one option, the said answer will be treated as incorrect and will yield a -1/2 (25% negative) mark. Category III - One or more options may be correct. Only correct responses will yield 2(two) marks. There is no negative marking. WBJEE 2024 Eligibility Criteria Eligibility criteria for appearing in the WBJEE-2024 Citizenship Applicant must be a citizen of India or OCI (subject to approval of the Competent Authority). OCI candidates will be eligible for only Unreserved seats in the All-India quota. Candidates must have passed the 12th standard (10+2) or its equivalent examination before 2024 or appearing in the 12th standard (10+2) or its equivalent examination in 2024. Age Restriction The lower age limit is 17 (seventeen) years as of 31.12.2024. A candidate should have been born on or before 31.12.2007. There is no upper age limit for appearing in the examination. However, for admission to the degree-level Marine Engineering Course, the upper age limit is 25 Years as of 31.12.2024. General criteria for admission to Pharmacy courses Candidate must have passed ‘10+2’ examination with Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics / Biology as compulsory subjects with individual pass marks (in both theory and practical wherever applicable) in all the three subjects. Must have obtained at least 45% marks (40% in case of candidates belonging to reserved category e.g., SC, ST, OBC-A, OBC-B, PWD). Must have passed English in the ‘10+2’ examination with at least 30% marks. The Board of the said Qualifying Examination must be recognized by the Central Government or State Government concerned. However, as per the rules of the concerned Regulatory Body, the students possessing 10+2 qualification from non-formal and non-classrooms-based schooling such as National Institute of Open Schooling, open school systems of States etc. shall not be eligible for admission to B. Pharm. Course. Important Links For brochure click here For official website click here

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Rajasthan Pre Veterinary Test

Note: RPVT exam will no longer be held for admission from 2023-24 onwards. It has been decided that admission will be provided through NEET exam only. The RPVT stands for Rajasthan Pre Veterinary Test. The RPVT exam is conducted by the Rajasthan University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences. The RPVT exam is conducted once in a year. This exam can be written by those candidates with a domicile of Rajasthan. RPVT exam is conducted offline unlike the other entrance exams. RPVT exam provides a gateway for admission to B.VSc and AH degree courses offered by Rajasthan University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences and affiliated colleges. There are several colleges which accept the RPVT Scores. Some of them are listed below. University Constituent Veterinary Colleges College of Veterinary and Animal Science, Bikaner College of Veterinary and Animal Science, Navania, Vallabhnagar, Udaipur Post Graduate Institute of Veterinary Education & Research, Jaipur University Affiliated Private Veterinary Colleges Arawali Veterinary College, Sikar Mahatma Jyotiba Fule College of Veterinary & Animal Sciences, Chomu, Jaipur Apollo College of Veterinary Medicine, Jaipur RPVT 2022 Exam Date Candidates willing to appear for the exam should keep track of all the important dates related to the exam. Candidates can go through the RPVT 2021 exam dates which are given below. Events Exam Dates Online Application Form End date(Without late fee) 30 May 2025 Online Application Form End date(With late fee) 6 June 2025 Admit Card 21 July 2025RPVT 2021 Exam Date 3 August 2025 Result 25 August Counselling To be announced RPVT 2022 Eligibility Candidates who are aspiring to appear for the RPVT 2021 should check the eligibility before filling the application form. The Eligibility criteria for the RPVT exam is given below. Domicile The candidates should be Indian National and should belong to the Rajasthan Domicile only. Age Limit The candidates should be at least 17 years of age at the time of applying for the exam and the maximum age is 25 years. Age as on December 31, 2021. The age relaxation for the reserved category is 5 years. Educational Qualification The candidate must have qualified 12th examination with Biology or Biotechnology, Physics, English, and Chemistry from a recognized university. Qualifying Marks General Categories: 50%; Reserved Category: 47.5% RPVT Application Fee The application fee for the RPVT exam can be paid online. Along with the application fee, the candidates also have to pay the processing charges and the service tax, which are applied by the respective bank/agency. Category Fee For all the categories INR 3000 With late fee for all the category candidates INR 6000 RPVT 2022 Exam Centre RPVT exam will be conducted only on the state level. Candidates of Rajasthan domicile can appear for the exam. Exam Centre Centre Code Bikaner 01 Jaipur 02 Udaipur 03 RPVT 2022 Exam Pattern RPVT exam consists of a single paper, which includes 180 objective type questions, to be attempted within 3 hours. The question paper will be in English and Hindi. Candidates can go through the exam pattern highlights given below: Mode of Examination: Offline The Medium of question paper: Hindi & English Duration of the examination: 3 hours Type of question: MCQ No. of questions: 180 Total Marks: 720 Number of sections: 3 (Physics, Chemistry & Biology) Negative Marking: Yes Marking Scheme The marking scheme practised in the RPVT 2021 is discussed below. For every correct answer, 4 marks will be awarded. For every incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted. No marks will be deducted for unattempted questions. If one question has more than one answer marked, then it will be considered as incorrect. Section-wise Marks Distribution The section-wise distribution of questions/marks are listed below. Subject Number of Questions Total Marks Chemistry 45 180 Physics 45 180 Biology 90 360 Total 180 720

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United States Medical Licensing Examination

International medical students and graduates who wish to practice medicine in the USA have to qualify for the United States Medical Licensing Examination(USMLE), which is a three-step examination. These include Step 1, Step 2 CK, Step 2 CS, and Step 3. Step 2 comprises two components - Clinical Knowledge (CK) and Clinical Science (CS); each component has to be taken separately. Step 1 and Step 2 components can be taken in any sequence, but Step 3 can be taken only after all other steps and step components are complete. Step 1, Step 2 CK, and Step 3 of USMLE 2022 will be conducted in computer-based mode. However, the Step 2 CS component will be offline-based and conducted at six testing centres in the US. Step 3 also can only be taken in the US. Meanwhile, Step 1 and Step 2 CK can be taken in Prometric centres, which are available in almost all major cities. USMLE 2024 Highlights Full Exam Name United States Medical Licensing Examination Short Exam Name USMLE Conducting Body Federation of State Medical Boards Exam Level University Level Exam Languages English Mode of Application Online Duration USMLE Step 1 - 8 Hours USMLE Step 2 CK - 9 Hours USMLE Step 3 - 16 Hours The USMLE: Purpose, Format, and Lengths STEP 1 Purpose Assesses the examinee’s understanding of and ability to apply important concepts of the basic sciences to the practice of medicine, with special emphasis on principles and mechanisms underlying health, disease, and modes of therapy Format Approximately 280 multiple- choice questions, divided into seven 60-minute blocks Length One-day exam, approximately eight hours STEP 2 CK Purpose Assesses the examinee’s ability to apply medical knowledge, skills, and understanding of clinical science essential for the provision of patient care under supervision, with an emphasis on health promotion and disease prevention Format Approximately 318 multiple- choice questions, divided into eight 60-minute blocks Length One-day exam, approximately nine hours STEP 3 Purpose Assesses the examinee’s ability to apply medical knowledge and understanding of biomedical and clinical science essential for the unsupervised practice of medicine, with emphasis on patient management in ambulatory settings Day 1: Foundations of Independent Practice (FIP) Assesses the examinee’s knowledge of basic medical and scientific principles essential for effective health care Day 2: Advanced Clinical Medicine (ACM) Assesses the examinee’s ability to apply comprehensive knowledge of health and disease in the context of patient management and the evolving manifestation of disease over time Format Day 1: FIP Approximately 232 multiple- choice questions, divided into six 60-minute blocks Day 2: ACM Approximately 180 multiple- choice questions, divided into six 45-minute blocks Thirteen computer-based case simulations (CCS); each simulation is allotted a maximum of 10 or 20 minutes of real time Length Day 1: FIP One-day test session, approximately seven hours Day 2: ACM One-day test session, approximately nine hours Eligibility for the USMLE Steps Step 1 and Step 2 CK To be eligible, you must be in one of the following categories at the time you apply AND on the day of your examination: a medical student officially enrolled in, or a graduate of, a US or Canadian medical school program leading to the MD degree that is accredited by the Liaison Committee on Medical Education (LCME), OR a medical student officially enrolled in, or a graduate of, a US medical school leading to the DO degree that is accredited by the Commission on Osteopathic College Accreditation (COCA), OR a medical student officially enrolled in, or a graduate of, a medical school that is outside the US and Canada, listed in the World Directory of Medical Schools as meeting ECFMG eligibility requirements, and that meets other eligibility criteria of the ECFMG Note: If you are dismissed or withdraw(n) from medical school, you are not eligible for the USMLE, even if you are appealing the school’s decision or are otherwise contesting your status. If you are on a leave of absence, please check with the organization that registered you for your examination before submitting your application; if you have already registered, check before testing. Failure to notify the organization that registered you for your examination of your changed status may result in a determination that you engaged in irregular behavior and placement of a permanent annotation on your score reports and transcripts. Step 3 Eligibility requirements for Step 3 are: Passing scores on Step 1 and Step 2 CK, AND An MD degree or the DO degree from an LCME- or COCA-accredited US or Canadian medical school, OR the equivalent of the MD degree from a medical school outside the US and Canada that is listed in the World Directory of Medical Schools as meeting ECFMG eligibility requirements and obtain ECFMG Certification, AND Meet all other eligibility criteria as listed in the USMLE Bulletin of Information The USMLE program recommends that, for Step 3 eligibility, applicants should have completed, or be near completion of, at least one postgraduate training year in an accredited US graduate medical education program that meets state board licensing requirements. Note: If you have attempted a Step four or more times, including incomplete attempts, and have not passed, you are ineligible to apply for any Step in the USMLE exam sequence. Attempts at the formerly administered Step 2 CS count toward the limit. For more information, click here.

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Foreign Dental Screening Test

Foreign Dental Screening Test (FDST) entrance test is conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE) in the offline mode for candidates to provide registration certificates from the Dental Council of India (DCI) or State Dental Council (SDC). Only Indian citizens or Person of Indian Origin (PIO) or Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) possessing a primary dental qualification/PG Diploma/Postgraduate Dental qualification awarded by any dental institution outside India are eligible to appear for FDST 2023 FDST 2024 Important DatesRegistration commencesLast date to submit the application formThe applications correction window opensAdmit card release dateExam to be held12 Jan 2025Result declaration FDST 2024 Eligibility Criteria Check the eligibility criteria for FDST given below. Nationality: The candidate must be an Indian citizen or Person of Indian Origin (PIO) or Overseas Citizen of India (OCI). Educational Qualification: The candidates who have a primary dental qualification / PG Diploma / Postgraduate Dental qualification awarded by any dental institution outside India. FDST 2024 Exam Pattern According to the Principal Dental Council of India Screening Test Regulations, 2009, the following is the exam pattern for FDST 2024 Foreign Dental Screening Test (FDST) is a pen-paper-based test FDST comprises of 2 question papers The duration of Paper 1 is 120 minutes and for Paper 2, it is 180 minutes The medium of instruction of the question paper shall be in English language only There are multiple-choice type questions in the test There are 100 questions in Paper 1 and 150 questions in Paper 2 For every correct question, the candidates are given 01 marks There is no negative marking in case of the wrong answers FDST 2024 Qualifying Marks To be declared as passed, the candidates are required to obtain the following minimum marks: Paper Min marks Written Test 50% in each paper individually Viva-voce examination 50% (25 out of 50) Note: No grace marks shall be given to the candidates. MDS / PG Diploma Viva-Voce Examination The candidates who qualify the written examination are required to appear for Viva-Voce Examination. Two examiners shall take the viva-voce examination. One will be internal from the examining university and the other will be from any other recognized university that awards UG and PG Dental qualification. Viva-Voce examination is of 50 marks.

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Diplomate of National Board Post Diploma Centralized Entrance Test

DNB PDCET is the abbreviation for the Diplomate of National Board Post Diploma Centralized Entrance Test. DNB PDCET is a ranking examination conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE) for admission to various post diploma DNB courses. Candidates who register for the DNB programme after clearing DNB PDCET, are required to complete 2 years of practical training under any NBE accredited institution/hospital/medical college. After completion of the practical training, he/she has to appear for the DNB final examination and clear it, only then he/she will be awarded a DNB degree. Highlights of DNB PDCET 2025 Name of the Examination: Diplomate of National Board Post Diploma Centralized Entrance Test Commonly known as: DNB PDCET Competent Authority: National Board of Examinations (NBE) Mode of the Examination: Online Level of the Examination: Postgraduate Frequency of the Examination: Annual Language: English Courses offered: DNB Number of attempts permitted: Any Application fee: Rs 5,900 Number of test centres: 23 No. of seats: 1073 DNB PDCET 2025 Important Dates and Events Events Dates Registration commences 30 Jan 2025 Last date to submit the application form 19 Jan 2025 The applications correction window opens 7 March 2025 Final correction window 10 March 2025 Admit card release date 21 March 2025 Exam to be held 25 March 2025 Result declaration April 25, 2025 Eligibility for DNB PDCET 2025 Candidates who qualified the Post Graduate Diploma qualification on or before July 31, 2025 are eligible to apply for the exam. Candidates can refer to the eligibility criteria given below. Candidate must possess a Postgraduate Diploma from a university/ institute recognised as per the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956 The result of the final examination for the said Post Graduate Diploma qualification should have been declared on or before July 31, 2025 He/she must be registered with the Medical Council of India/ State Medical Council Candidates already pursuing MD/MS/DNB course are not eligible to appear for DNB PDCET 2025 DNB PDCET 2025 Exam Pattern The candidate checks the exam pattern to prepare for the PDCET test which is given in the table below: The medium of Question Paper English Exam Mode Online mode The section in question paper There will be 8 Sections in the Question Paper No. of questions 200 questions Marking Scheme For each correct answer candidates will get 4 marks and for each incorrect answer 1 mark of the candidates will be deducted. Type of questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) DNB PDCET 2025 Exam Centres The list of the test cities where the exam will be conducted include: Ahmedabad Bengaluru Bhopal Bhubaneshwar Chandigarh Chennai Coimbatore Dehradun New Delhi Guwahati Hyderabad Jaipur Jammu Kolkata Kozhikode Lucknow Mumbai Nagpur Noida Patna Pune Ranchi Thiruvananthapuram Visakhapatnam

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Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test

INI CET is the abbreviation for Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test. The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Delhi conducts the entrance test for admission to PG courses such as Masters of Surgery (MS), Doctor of Medicine (MD), Master of Dental Surgery (MDS), Doctorate of Medicine (DM), and Master of Chirurgiae (MCh). INI CET scores are valid for admission to 10 AIIMS including AIIMS Delhi, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Jodhpur, Patna, Nagpur, Raipur, and Rishikesh, Bathinda, Bibinagar, as well as NIMHANS Bengaluru, JIPMER Puducherry, PGI Chandigarh, and SCTIMST, Trivandrum. With effect from 2021, all these institutes will admit PG students on the basis of the marks obtained in the INI CET exam only. Earlier these 14 institutes used to conduct separate exams for admission to PG courses. The examination is conducted twice a year, January and the July session. INI CET 2025 Exam Date: July Session All the important dates regarding INI CET 2025 are tabulated below. Events INI CET 2025 July Session Dates Basic registration March 10, 2025 Generation of examination unique code (EUC) April 1, 2025 but it was postponed INI CET admit card release INI CET July session exam April 25, 2025Result INI CET 2025 Eligibility Criteria A candidate must possess MBBS degree for MD/MS/DM-6yrs/MCH-6yrs and BDS degree for MDS courses of a University recognized by the National Medical Commission/Medical Council of India as notified by Govt. of India and Dental Council of India respectively and must have completed the required period of 12 months compulsory rotating Internship/Practical training on or before 31st July, 2024 for all INIs except PGIMER Chandigarh. Candidates who complete their internship after 31st July, 2023 are not eligible for Registration in this examination. Those candidates who have completed the required period of 12 months compulsory rotating Internship/Practical training on or before 30th June, 2023 are eligible to admission for PG courses at PGIMER Chandigarh. The Indian National, who has obtained eligibility degree in India, must have obtained a minimum of the following marks (aggregate of all professional MBBS/BDS professional examinations). For candidates belonging to the SC/ST Categories 50% marks in aggregate, For all other categories including OBC/EWS Category 55% marks in aggregate, For Persons with Benchmark Disabilities [PWBD] candidates the minimum aggregate as provided in (a) and (b) will be applicable for the category to which the candidate belongs shall apply. 0 INI CET 2025 Pattern AIIMS releases the INI CET 2023 exam pattern in the official information brochure. As per the existing INI CET 2023 pattern, the exam is conducted in computer-based mode and candidates get three hours to answer the exam paper. Details of INI CET pattern 2023 is as follows: Mode of exam: Computer-based test Duration: 3 hours (180 minutes) Number of questions: 200 Type of questions: Objective type Correct answer: One mark (+1) Incorrect answer: Minus one third (-1/3) Unanswered: 0 INI CET 2025 Syllabus The conducting authorities release the syllabus for INI CET 2025 for candidates to adopt an advanced strategy for test preparation. Candidates must check the INI CET 2025 Syllabus details for the July session mentioned below. Subjects INI CET Syllabus 2025 Pre-Clinical Biochemistry, Anatomy, Physiology Para-Clinical Pharmacology, Forensic Medicine, Microbiology, Pathology, Community Medicine, etc. Clinical Obstetrics, Community Medicine, Paediatrics, Medicine and allied subjects (Dermatology, Psychiatry) and Gynaecology, etc. Surgery and Allied Subjects Orthopedics, E.N.T., Ophthalmology, Anaesthesiology, etc.

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